SOLUTION
a) This function satisfies f (−x) = f (x) , therefore is an even function.
So the coefficients of the sine terms must vanish, i.e. bn = 0.
Also note that the area under the function in the range −π ≤ x ≤π is zero,
which is obvious by inspecting the graph of the function. Therefore we also have a0 = 0.



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